Postoperative Care Evolve Case Study Quizlet Vocabulary

Free NBDHE Practice Test

The National Board Dental Hygiene Exam (NBDHE) certification has 350 questions in a multiple-choice format. There are two separate components to the test. The first section is comprised of basic knowledge areas within the context of Dental Hygiene Practice and Services. There are 200 questions covering three content areas:

  • Scientific Basis for Dental Hygiene Practice
  • Provision of Clinical Dental Hygiene Services
  • Community Health/Research Principles

NBDHE Review Study Guide with Practice Questions

An additional 150 multiple-choice questions are presented in the second component of the test. This second set of questions, however, is based on case studies of between 12 and 15 individual samples. The dental hygiene examinee must answer this second set of questions based on the conditions presented in the case study samples.

The case studies used for this part of the test provide a wide demographic sampling of patients presenting different problems and challenges for the dental hygienist. Specific patient types that may be encountered among these case studies include children; the elderly; individuals with compromised immune systems or other medical problems; individuals with periodontal disease; and individuals with special needs. Case-based challenges pose questions in the area of assessment, planning for future care, periodontal techniques, preventive measures and agents, and care management. Medical histories, x-rays, photographs and dental charts are used to present the problems in this portion of the test, and the challenges posed must be addressed correctly by the hygienist seeking this certification.

The National Board Dental Hygiene Examination is given three times a year, in the months of March, July, and December. Application deadlines may vary from one to two months for registration, so it is necessary to check the deadline for each regularly-scheduled examination date. Registration can be conducted online or by mail.

A passing score on the NBDHE examination is 75. That number is a scaled score, converted from a raw score determined by the number of questions answered correctly. The minimum scaled score is 49, and the maximum scaled score is 99. Results are mailed within six to eight weeks after the completion of the examination. Those who fail to receive an acceptable passing score of 75 may take the test again, but three failures on the test set a precondition of a one-year wait before the individual can take the test again.

Practice Questions

1. Which fibrous ligament connects the alveolar process to the root?

a. Anterior crucial ligament
b. Cricothyroid ligament
c. Peritoneal ligament
d. Periodontal ligament

2. From the following list select three statements that are true regarding fluoride.

a. Fluorine, the precursor to fluoride, is a naturally occurring element found in air and water.
b. Fluoride is the result of sodium bicarbonate mixing underground with clean well water.
c. The practice of civilized water fluoridation in populated areas is supported by scientific research to help prevent widespread tooth decay in children and adults.
d. Persons who are at risk of developing early gum disease in their teens are recommended to buy meat and dairy products injected with antibiotics to support their immune system.
e. The level of fluoride recommended in drinking water for optimal dental health is 10.0 ppm.
f. Fluoridation of city water systems has been common practice in the U.S. since World War II.
g. Young children who ingest too much fluoride early in life develop teeth with short roots.

3. Order the following 1-4 to show the most reasonable steps in conducting a periodontal exam.

___ Collect samples from the pockets to conduct a bacterial evaluation by microscope.
___ Do a visual inspection of the gums, connective tissues, lips and tongue.
___ Measure the distance ranging between 1 and 12 mm of the gum tissue from the tooth.
___ Grow a culture of the bacteria collected to exactly identify strain and variety.

4. Which of the following are specific reasons pregnant women should floss their teeth every day?

a. Unhealthy gums bleed, allowing bacteria to travel through the bloodstream to the fetus.
b. Once your gums are damaged the effects can never be reversed or improved.
c. Flossing to remove plaque bacteria can help reduce the risk of low birth weights.
d. The changes in hormones during the first and second trimesters increase the risk of gingivitis.
e. The gums release special hormones that help teach your baby how to breastfeed.
f. Flossing releases insulin from the gums, which can improve your blood sugar while pregnant.

5. For each symptom named below, match the corresponding disorder from the list provided.

Symptom

Disorder

___ 1. Migraine headaches

___ 2. Canker sore, aphthous ulcer, or noncancerous blister

___ 3. Bright red, smooth area (erythroplakia)

___ 4. Lines of lesions that form a lacy-looking network

___ 5. Black tongue

a. Oral cancer

b. Lichen planus

c. Sutton’s disease

d. TMJ disorder

e. Sjögren's Syndrome


Answers

1. D: The root of every tooth is attached to the alveolar processes by the periodontal ligament (PDL). Like all ligaments, the periodontal ligament is made up of fibrous connective tissues stretched between two points, in this case the fundus socket and the gingival mucosa holding the tooth firmly in place.

2. A, C and F are true statements. B, D, E and G are false statements.
B is false because fluoride is derived from hydrofluoric acid.
D is false because persons at risk of tooth decay are recommended to brush twice a day with a fluoride toothpaste.
E is false because the correct measurement is 1.0 ppm.
G is false because young children who overingest fluoride develop white spots on the enamel.

3. The most reasonable order of steps for conducting a periodontal exam is
1 - Do a visual inspection of the gums, connective tissues, lips and tongue.
2 - Measure the distance ranging between 1 and 12 mm of the gum tissue from the tooth.
3 - Collect samples from the pockets to conduct a bacterial evaluation by microscope.
4 - Grow a culture of the bacteria collected to exactly identify strain and variety.

4. A, C and D are true. B, E and F are NOT true.
B is not true. Damage to gums can be improved or completely reversed if addressed early and with professional intervention.
E is not true. The gums of mammalian species do not excrete any hormones.
F is not true. Flossing between the teeth does not release insulin.

5.

Symptom

Disorder

D 1. Migraine headaches

C 2. Canker sore, aphthous ulcer, or noncancerous blister

A 3. Bright red, smooth area (erythroplakia)

B 4. Lines of lesions that form a lacy-looking network

E 5. Black tongue

a. Oral cancer

b. Lichen planus

c. Sutton’s disease

d. TMJ disorder

e. Sjögren's Syndrome

Dental Assistant Salary

There are many employment opportunities for a dental assistant, so for someone considering this profession, the first step is to have a good understanding of what is expected.

To begin with, training from an accredited institute is important in building your career. Most people who do well in science classes in high school typically do well in dental assistant programs. Dental assistant programs usually take about ten months to complete and are offered at many community colleges, trade schools, technical institutes, and dental and career schools. A dental assistant curriculum includes a history of medicine, lessons on working with patients, topics in medical law and ethics, and appointments and reports. Dental assistants learn about their roles as part of a health care team, infection control, and medical and dental emergencies. Dental assistants are trained in nutrition, dental anatomy, oral exams, and dental charting and instruments. Students learn about pharmacology and anesthesia, pediatric dentistry, oral and maxillofacial surgery, and oral pathology. The dental assistant gains experience in digital imaging systems, mounting dental X-rays, and labeling and filing dental X-rays. Most programs assist students in their job searches and with employment opportunities upon completion. Once the dental assistant program is completed, the student must pass an extensive exam of about 320 questions, which takes about four hours to complete. Passing this exam leads to official certification from the Dental Assisting National Board (DANB). A certified dental assistant salary is higher than an uncertified assistant.

Dental assistants who want to specialize in other tasks, such as radiology, need additional training and must complete a Radiation Health and Safety exam offered by the DANB. In this role, the dental assistant prepares the dental equipment prior to the patient's arrival. The dental assistant records and maintains medical and dental histories. The assistant supports the dentist with extractions by removing stitches and applying anesthetics or cavity preventive agents using swabs and suction. During a procedure, the dental assistant may sterilize equipment, prepare trays, and hand instruments to the dentist. He or she may also take X-rays and impressions for casts. The dental assistant may make temporary crowns and polish removable appliances. The assistant gives patients instructions on postoperative procedures and removes excess cement in the filling process.

The dental assistant does all office, laboratory, and patient care that are different tasks than the dental hygienist. They may greet patients, order supplies, and manage bills and payments. To be a good dental assistant, a person should have good interpersonal and communication skills. Organizational skills and time management are also very important. The dental assistant should be compassionate and empathetic toward other people's concerns. Many people have a fear of the dentist's office and dental procedures, so the dental assistant should be able to help ease a patient's mind. The dental assistant should be able to provide advice and guidance on how to clean teeth and maintain oral hygiene.

According to Payscale.com, a dental assistant salary is attractive in most states. For those people who earn an hourly wage, the rate is between $9.75 and $19.31. Salaried employees earn $20,000 to $41,000 a year. Some professionals are eligible to receive overtime, bonuses, and profit sharing. Women dominate the field at 95 percent of the occupation. About 41 percent of dental assistants have between one and four years of experience. After the fourth year, many may go on to become office managers, dental assisting instructors, or sales representatives. Many do decide to go back to school to become dental hygienists. The highest dental assistant salaries go to individuals with dental assistant diplomas.

by Enoch Morrison

Follow @testprepreview

Last Updated: 12/14/2017

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  • 1. 

    A nurse who reads research articles and incorporates research findings into nursing practice would demonstrate which of the following research roles?

    • A. 

    • B. 

    • C. 

    • D. 

  • 2. 

    Florence Nightingale is most noted for which of the following contributions to nursing research?

    • A. 

      Case study approach to research

    • B. 

      Data collection and analysis

    • C. 

      Framework and model development

    • D. 

      Quasi-experimental study design

  • 3. 

    Which of the following historical events had a major impact on the funding for nursing research?

    • A. 

      Development of local, national, and international nursing research conferences by Sigma Theta Tau

    • B. 

      Initiation of the Agency for Health Care Policy and Research

    • C. 

      Formation of the National Institute for Nursing Research

    • D. 

      Development of a Nursing Research Council as part of the American Nurses Association

  • 4. 

    An example of inductive reasoning is:

    • A. 

      reasoning from all chronically ill patients to a single chronically ill patient

    • B. 

      Reasoning from a single diabetic patient to all diabetic patients

    • C. 

      Using a standard nursing care plan to care for a specific patient

    • D. 

      Using a computerized nursing care plan to care for insulin-dependent diabetic patients.

  • 5. 

    Quantitative and qualitative research approaches are particularly useful in nursing because they:

    • A. 

    • B. 

    • C. 

      are both process oriented.

    • D. 

      Balance each other by generating different types of nursing knowledge.

  • 6. 

    Which of the following types of research involve at least some control by the researcher to implement the study treatment?

    • A. 

    • B. 

    • C. 

    • D. 

  • 7. 

    In which type of research is there high researcher control, random sampling, and laboratory setting?

    • A. 

    • B. 

    • C. 

    • D. 

  • 8. 

    Benner (1984) emphasizes the importance of acquiring clinical knowledge and expertise through:

    • A. 

    • B. 

    • C. 

  • 9. 

    What category of research is suggested by the following research question?"Does telephone follow-up by nurses improve patients' compliance with their medication regimens?"

    • A. 

    • B. 

    • C. 

    • D. 

      Phenomenological research

  • 10. 

    A researcher investigates the effect of frequency of position change on healing of decubitus ulcers. The study would be described as:

    • A. 

    • B. 

    • C. 

    • D. 

      Phenomenological research

  • 11. 

    Applied research seeks to solve a clinical problem in which setting?  

    • A. 

    • B. 

    • C. 

    • D. 

  • 12. 

    A researcher designs a study that uses a random sampling method to decrease the likelihood of bias in the study sample. This strategy was used to implement:

    • A. 

    • B. 

    • C. 

    • D. 

  • 13. 

    Which of the following definitions best describes rigor in quantitative research?

    • A. 

      Time frame in which the research takes place

    • B. 

      Degree of aggressiveness used in acquiring the data

    • C. 

      Amount of control and precision exerted by the methodology

    • D. 

      Process used to synthesize findings to form conclusions from a study

  • 14. 

    A researcher is interested in studying stress and coping in caregivers of elderly stroke victims. The researcher designs a study where data collection takes place in the caregiver's home. This would be an example of which type of research setting?

    • A. 

    • B. 

    • C. 

      Partially controlled, laboratory

    • D. 

      Highly controlled, laboratory

  • 15. 

    Problem identification in the research process would be equivalent to which step in the nursing process?

    • A. 

    • B. 

    • C. 

    • D. 

  • 16. 

    The plan in the problem-solving process is equivalent to which step in the research process?

    • A. 

    • B. 

    • C. 

    • D. 

  • 17. 

    The research process differs from the nursing process on which of the following?

    • A. 

      Identifies new information

    • B. 

      Involves abstract, critical thinking

    • C. 

    • D. 

      Utilizes complex thinking

  • 18. 

    Which of the following would identify the specific aim or goal of the study based on the identified problem?

    • A. 

    • B. 

    • C. 

    • D. 

  • 19. 

    Research subjects in a study of quality of life (QOL) in liver transplant recipients were asked to complete a questionnaire about their experiences following transplantation. Which of the following would be a likely assumption the researcher made in relation to this study?

    • A. 

      Subjects will complete every item on the questionnaire.

    • B. 

      Subjects are able to identify a personal awareness of QOL.

    • C. 

      All liver transplant recipients invited to participate in the study will complete a questionnaire

    • D. 

      QOL is an important issue to liver transplant recipients.

  • 20. 

    Before implementing a large, multisite research investigation, a researcher conducts a smaller study of the planned study to identify any problematic areas. This smaller study is known as a(n):

    • A. 

    • B. 

    • C. 

    • D. 

  • 21. 

    The researcher uses which portion of the research report to capture the reader's attention?

  • 22. 

    The sentence "The purpose of this study was to examine the relationship between health beliefs and breast self-examination" would most likely be found in which section of a research report?

  • 23. 

    The initial and one of the most significant steps in conducting the research process is:

    • A. 

      Defining the research variables.

    • B. 

      identifying the research problem.

    • C. 

      Stating the research purpose.

    • D. 

      Determining the feasibility of the study.

  • 24. 

    The purpose statement should identify the study variable(s) and what other key aspect of the study?

    • A. 

    • B. 

    • C. 

    • D. 

  • 25. 

    One important source for identification of a research problem would be:

    • A. 

    • B. 

    • C. 

    • D. 

  • 26. 

    In the literature report of a study on quality of life, the researcher describes two previous investigations suggesting that spirituality is related to quality of life. This information suggests the current study is significant because it:

    • A. 

    • B. 

      builds on previous research.

    • C. 

      Challenges existing theory.

    • D. 

      Addresses multidisciplinary concerns.

  • 27. 

    Feasibility is determined by examining which of the following? 

    • A. 

    • B. 

      Significance of research problem

    • C. 

    • D. 

  • 28. 

    In a research proposal, the investigator notes that written permission has been obtained from three local hospitals to access patients for the proposed study. This is an example of what aspect of a study?

    • A. 

    • B. 

    • C. 

    • D. 

  • 29. 

    A research hypothesis:

    • A. 

      Predicts the expected results or outcomes of the study

    • B. 

      Defines the theoretical framework for the study

    • C. 

      Identifies the source of the problem under study

    • D. 

      Clarifies the concepts used in the study

  • 30. 

    The statement "This study explores the experience of caregiving by adult daughters of parents with Alzheimer disease" is an example of which of the following?

    • A. 

    • B. 

    • C. 

    • D. 

  • 31. 

    What type of hypothesis is the following? "Normal saline flush with heparin is more effective than normal saline flush alone in maintaining patency of an intermittent intravenous site."

    • A. 

    • B. 

    • C. 

    • D. 

  • 32. 

    What type of hypothesis is the following?"Cancer patients who receive music therapy complain less frequently of pain and require less pain medication than cancer patients not receiving music therapy." 

    • A. 

      Complex, directional hypothesis

    • B. 

      Simple, associative hypothesis

    • C. 

      Simple, nondirectional hypothesis

    • D. 

  • 33. 

    What type of hypothesis is the following? "Low-fat diet is related to lower total cholesterol and higher HDL (high-density lipoprotein)." 

    • A. 

      Complex, directional, causal

    • B. 

      Complex, directional, associative

    • C. 

      Simple, nondirectional, research

    • D. 

      Simple, directional, causal

  • 34. 

    The dependent variable is:

    • A. 

      A stimulus or activity that is varied by the researcher.

    • B. 

      The quality, property, or characteristic identified in the problem

    • C. 

      A characteristic or element of the human subjects involved in the study

    • D. 

      The response or outcome that the researcher wants to understand

  • 35. 

    Identify the independent variable in the following hypothesis:"Cancer patients who receive music therapy complain less frequently of pain and require less pain medication than cancer patients not receiving music therapy." 

    • A. 

    • B. 

    • C. 

    • D. 

  • 36. 

    Hypotheses: "Structured preoperative support is more effective in reducing surgical patients' perception of pain and request for analgesics than structured postoperative support." Question: "Request for analgesics" is the:

    • A. 

    • B. 

    • C. 

    • D. 

  • 37. 

    Hypotheses: "Structured preoperative support is more effective in reducing surgical patients' perception of pain and request for analgesics than structured postoperative support." Question: "Perception of pain" is the:

    • A. 

    • B. 

    • C. 

    • D. 

  • 38. 

    Hypotheses: "Structured preoperative support is more effective in reducing surgical patients' perception of pain and request for analgesics than structured postoperative support." Question: "Type of support" is

    • A. 

    • B. 

    • C. 

    • D. 

  • 39. 

    Hypotheses: "Structured preoperative support is more effective in reducing surgical patients' perception of pain and request for analgesics than structured postoperative support." This hypothesis is

    • A. 

      Simple, directional, research

    • B. 

      Complex, nondirectional, null

    • C. 

      Complex, directional, research

    • D. 

      Simple, nondirectional, statistical

  • 40. 

    The statement below is an example of which of the following? "In this study, pain is reflected as a score between 0 and 10 on the Post-operative Pain Rating Scale."

    • A. 

    • B. 

    • C. 

    • D. 

  • 41. 

    In which section of the research report might the problem statement be located?

    • A. 

    • B. 

    • C. 

    • D. 

  • 42. 

    The literature review section of a research report might include a summary of which of the following?

    • A. 

    • B. 

    • C. 

      Proposed methods and design

    • D. 

      Description of study sample

  • 43. 

    Which of the following represents a primary source?

    • A. 

      The results of a computer search related to the primary topic of interest

    • B. 

      A report of a study written by the researcher who did the study

    • C. 

      A published summary of the relevant research in a primary care area

    • D. 

      A thesaurus that identifies key words to use in a computer search

  • 44. 

    At what point is the literature review conducted in a qualitative investigation?

    • A. 

      Prior to study implementation

    • B. 

      During study implementation

    • C. 

    • D. 

      Depends on the type of study

  • 45. 

    Which of the following types of information is consistently covered in a quantitative literature review? 

    • A. 

      Descriptions of effective clinical outcomes

    • B. 

      Anecdotal opinions of expert researchers

    • C. 

      Approaches used to investigate similar problems

    • D. 

      Clinical impressions of related phenomena

  • 46. 

    The primary purpose for reviewing relevant literature is to:

    • A. 

      Select the research design.

    • B. 

      Delineate the existing knowledge base of an identified problem

    • C. 

      interpret previous research findings

    • D. 

      develop conceptual and operational definitions of variables

  • 47. 

    A crucial resource for researchers conducting a literature review would be:

    • A. 

    • B. 

    • C. 

    • D. 

  • 48. 

    Which numbers are even

    • A. 

    • B. 

    • C. 

    • D. 

    • E. 

  • 49. 

    Which of the following indexes would provide the largest number of relevant nursing sources?

    • A. 

      International Nursing Index

    • B. 

    • C. 

      Cumulative Index to Nursing & Allied Health Literature

    • D. 

  • 50. 

    A critical aspect of beginning a database search for relevant literature on a topic of interest involves identifying:

    • A. 

      Reference management software

    • B. 

    • C. 

    • D. 

  • 51. 

    In the following APA formatted reference, what does the 21 refer to? Harris, R. M., Bausell, R. B., Scott, D. E.,Hetherington, S. E., & Kavanagh, K. H. (1998). An intervention for changing high-risk HIV behaviors of African American drug-dependent women. Research in Nursing and Health, 21(3), pp. 239-250.

    • A. 

    • B. 

    • C. 

    • D. 

  • 52. 

    What is the arrow pointing to?

    • A. 

    • B. 

    • C. 

    • D. 

  • 53. 

    One advantage of an integrative review of research is that: 

    • A. 

      previous research findings have been synthesized.

    • B. 

      Multidisciplinary literature has been filtered out.

    • C. 

      Emphasis is placed on what is not known.

    • D. 

      Statistical analyses of the summarized research are conducted.

  • 54. 

    A study framework reflects the:

    • A. 

    • B. 

      Specific plan for data collection

    • C. 

    • D. 

      researcher's "theory" or idea about the study

  • 55. 

    A researcher theorizes that walking three times per week will minimize the likelihood of premature labor in at-risk pregnant women. The researcher initiates a research program to test this theory. This research study is attempting to validate what aspect of theory?

    • A. 

    • B. 

    • C. 

    • D. 

      Strategies for controlling outcomes

  • 56. 

    Which of the following is true about theoretical frameworks used in research?

    • A. 

      Theories offer precise guidance in all situations.

    • B. 

      Theories prove how concepts are related to one another.

    • C. 

      Theories represent ultimate truth and are congruent with reality.

    • D. 

      Theories are constructed by people and are tentative in nature.

  • 57. 

    "Abstract" is defined in research as:

    • A. 

    • B. 

      Not well-defined and general

    • C. 

    • D. 

  • 58. 

    Which of the following is true about the relationship between a study framework and the hypotheses?

    • A. 

      The framework and hypotheses must be congruent with each other.

    • B. 

      The hypotheses are not meant to be testable, but the framework is.

    • C. 

      If the hypotheses are stated, the researcher does not need to have a framework.

    • D. 

      Hypotheses are inductively identified within the stated framework.

  • 59. 

    The framework and conceptual map for a study: 

    • A. 

      Are always included in the study report.

    • B. 

      are usually clearly identified in the report.

    • C. 

      Often must be inferred by the reader from the text of the report.

    • D. 

      Should be referred to only at the end of the study.

  • 60. 

    Which of the following represents the most concrete term?

    • A. 

    • B. 

    • C. 

    • D. 

  • 61. 

    Conceptual definitions are important because: 

    • A. 

      The meanings of terms may differ depending on the study framework.

    • B. 

      They tell others how the concept will be measured in the study.

    • C. 

      they provide a dictionary definition that can be understood by everyone

    • D. 

      They suggest how to precisely measure the variables of interest

  • 62. 

    In the research report, a theoretical statement:

    • A. 

      Will always be clearly identified

    • B. 

      Should only be discussed in the framework section

    • C. 

    • D. 

      Can be omitted if variables are not yet well defined

  • 63. 

    Which relationship diagram below best represents the following hypothesis?"Conventional gauze dressings cause fewerskin changes in wound sites than dohydrocolloid or hydroactive dressings."

    • A. 

      Gauze dressing ----------> skin changes

    • B. 

      Type of dressing ---------> skin changes

    • C. 

      Type of dressing <---------> wound site

    • D. 

      Gauze dressing <--------- wound site

  • 64. 

    Which of the following responses best describes the relational statement that is diagrammed below? Pain perception <------- (+) --------> Anxiety

    • A. 

      Increased perception of pain causes anxiety.

    • B. 

      Anxiety causes increased pain perception.

    • C. 

      Pain perception and anxiety are positively related to one another

    • D. 

      Pain perception and anxiety are inversely related.

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